Hellbound Hellhound
kiwifarms.net
- Joined
- Apr 2, 2018
- Highlight
- #1
In philosophy, a long debate has persisted around the relationship between the individual and the external world, with conclusions ranging from direct realism, to metaphysical subjectivism, all the way to solipsism. An individual's cognitive experience of the world surrounding them is typically defined as their qualia, with each individual "quale" supposedly being unique to each individual.
Or is it?
John Locke once put forward the following thought experiment: suppose that you were to wake up one morning, and suddenly, everything that was red is now green, and everything that was green is now red. Would you be able to explain this in objective terms? Suppose the following morning you were hit on the head, and suffered amnesia. Would you be able to discern that anything was wrong with your perception of colour? Suppose your perception of colour reverted back to normal in the trauma. Could this possibly be known to you?
It has been proposed by some that the qualia between different people could be radically different (Perhaps the way I perceive white is the way you perceive black, and vice versa?). Others have raised objections to this suggestion, proposing that these sorts of differences in qualia could be objectively discernable. Academic philosopher C. L. Hardin argues the following:
Another question which may be worth asking is the question of whether or not colour is truly invertable. We can certainly invert colours digitally, but in these instances, all we're really doing is taking a simple set of three-way inputs, and flipping them around. It isn't clear to me that our brains interpret colour in quite this fashion, and this raises an important question about whether or not there could be an objective reason for why we perceive colours the way we do, and that this perception is fairly uniform across individuals.
Thoughts?
Or is it?
John Locke once put forward the following thought experiment: suppose that you were to wake up one morning, and suddenly, everything that was red is now green, and everything that was green is now red. Would you be able to explain this in objective terms? Suppose the following morning you were hit on the head, and suffered amnesia. Would you be able to discern that anything was wrong with your perception of colour? Suppose your perception of colour reverted back to normal in the trauma. Could this possibly be known to you?
It has been proposed by some that the qualia between different people could be radically different (Perhaps the way I perceive white is the way you perceive black, and vice versa?). Others have raised objections to this suggestion, proposing that these sorts of differences in qualia could be objectively discernable. Academic philosopher C. L. Hardin argues the following:
there are more perceptually distinguishable shades between red and blue than there are between green and yellow, which would make red-green inversion behaviorally detectable. And there are yet further asymmetries. Dark yellow is brown (qualitatively different from yellow), whereas dark blue is blue[...] Similarly, desaturated bluish-red is pink (qualitatively different from saturated bluish-red), whereas desaturated greenish-yellow is similar to saturated greenish-yellow. Again, red is a "warm" color, whereas blue is "cool"—and perhaps this is not a matter of learned associations with temperature.
Another question which may be worth asking is the question of whether or not colour is truly invertable. We can certainly invert colours digitally, but in these instances, all we're really doing is taking a simple set of three-way inputs, and flipping them around. It isn't clear to me that our brains interpret colour in quite this fashion, and this raises an important question about whether or not there could be an objective reason for why we perceive colours the way we do, and that this perception is fairly uniform across individuals.
Thoughts?